Did John Bell “prove” that quantum physics is non-local, therefore the world is non-local? Or did he rather show that if we try to replace quantum theory with a classical theory, then that classical theory must be non-local? Does this just turn out to be a disagreement about the definition of “locality” or is there a substantial issue here?
- Stanford Encyclopedia of Philosophy – Bell’s Theorem
- Scholarpedia – Bell’s theorem
- Sidney Coleman’s “Quantum Mechanics in Your Face” video
I believe this last one is clearly taking a position against non-locality. Watch especially the part about 30 minutes into the lecture, where he says that QM does not say there’s a connection over the spacelike interval, but that you either believe QM or you believe there’s such a connection.
Related notes from some or our meetings